From about 500 BCE till 1500 (as far as I know) China was more advanced economically And technologically than Greece and Rome (or Europe in general)
But why was that ?
Wasnt there a huge cultural, economic and technologic decline in China following the Mongol invasions which took until the 1700s to finally get fixed? People often claim that Song was on the verge of an industrial revolution when it fell.Part of it is just China had a greater head start. The Shang Dynasty was founded around 1,500 BC. This was a bit later than the earliest literate state in Europe (the Minoans) but roughly contemporaneous with Mycenaean Greece. Of course, during that period, Greek culture was more the furthest north extension of the Near Eastern civilization complex than anything. The rest of Europe was still pre-literate, and the bulk of it didn't become "civilized" until after the fall of Rome.
It undoubtedly helps that China didn't have anything resembling a "dark age" either. Western civilization had the Bronze Age collapse, and then the fall of Rome. China had warring states periods where the empire wasn't unified, but there was never a general regression of knowledge, infrastructure, or technology that lasted more than a few generations.
I think the advent of a meritocratic civil service helped a great deal at once. It was a constant with China from the Han Dynasty onward. It ensured that there was great continuity in terms of culture and governance even when the dynasties changed over (or even when foreign invaders took over).
Geography also helped. Northern and Central China - where the core of the Chinese polity formed - is a mostly flat plain. Once there was great cultural-linguistic unity across China, this allowed for new innovations to be transmitted across the state very rapidly. Unfortunately starting in 1500 it was arguably more of a hindrance, because China's lack of nearby competitors meant it focused on slow improvements to maintain social stability rather than the wild innovation which was taking place in the West.
But "Marco Polo" didn't go to India. The European public's fascination (such as it was at the time) was focused on China due to Trade.Bear in mind that for a considerable amount of that time period, most of Europe lacked organized states and literacy. The comparison probably shouldn't be between China and Europe, but between China and the Mediterranean.
I also note how South Asia and Persia tend to get left out of these "civilizational comparisons". India had an economy and population of comparable size to China's, which makes it particularly odd.
Wasnt there a huge cultural, economic and technologic decline in China following the Mongol invasions which took until the 1700s to finally get fixed? People often claim that Song was on the verge of an industrial revolution when it fell.
But Han China had the compass, paper, seed drills, blast furnaces, water wheels, and water-powered trip hammers at the time, putting them far ahead of the Roman Empire technologically.I have the Han and the Roman Empire as roughly equal technology wise, so to me it is a different question based on different facts.
Vasco da Gama did, and the Indian cotton trade (plus some other things like indigo, wootz steel, and later especially saltpeter) was as valuable as any trade with China.But "Marco Polo" didn't go to India.
But why didn't they restore the Arabic world's learning and prosperity?I'm sure the Mongol invasions hurt northern China tremendously in the short term. But the Yuan Dynasty pretty quickly worked to restore things to something like the old status quo.
Because we can't talk about "the Mongols" as some monolithic force. Genghis Khan originally intended to genocide the population of North China in order to turn the farmland into pasture for Mongol horses. His advisers convinced him that "tax farming" was more lucrative. Expansion under Ogedei into China was helped because at the time much of north China was ruled by the Jin dynasty, which was a foreign (Manchu, more less) dynasty themselves, and hated by a large portion of the Han ruling class, who defected to the Mongols. Later Kublai Khan accepted the Mandate of Heaven, effectively making his state into a Chinese successor state rather than a bunch of pirates who occupied half of China. As time went on, ethnic Chinese advisers became more and more central, and the lack of disruption of the Civil Service meant the underpinnings of the state remained unbroken.But why didn't they restore the Arabic world's learning and prosperity?
They had the highest 'effective population density', thanks to the productivity of the land and the development of infrastructure, which gave them something to develop; and they had some of the best 'natural barriers', thanks to the Gobi desert, the Himalayas, and the jungles of Southeast Asia, which gave them the space and time to develop.
It should be noted that the Ming Dynasty after the Columbian interchange was a really odd place. On one hand, trade with Spain was causing its economy to collapse, because Spain paid for Chinese goods via silver, which was causing dramatic levels of inflation in China, wrecking the economy. At the same time, introduction of New World crops (most notably sweet potatoes, but also corn and potatoes) was allowing for intensive cultivation of the less wet hillsides in South China for the first time, leading to a decline in famine and a massive boost in population.
This kind of change was reflected across the whole planet. Africa had it's own agricultural revolution thanks to American crops. Europeans were the brokers of this change, thanks to a few developments, ocean-going ships and gunpowder most famously, and so they ended up on top.
To some extent they did. After converting, the Ilkhanate turned Tabriz into a center of Islamic learning and culture. But they fell relatively quickly, as did the Timurids after them. The whole region was pretty chaotic for a while, unlike China unified under the Yuan and then Ming.But why didn't they restore the Arabic world's learning and prosperity?
They coincided with spread of Black Death (which become endemic and devastate long after Mongols gone)
But Han China had the compass, paper, seed drills, blast furnaces, water wheels, and water-powered trip hammers at the time, putting them far ahead of the Roman Empire technologically.
Vasco da Gama did, and the Indian cotton trade (plus some other things like indigo, wootz steel, and later especially saltpeter) was as valuable as any trade with China.
But why didn't they restore the Arabic world's learning and prosperity?